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UPSC CDS 2 2026 English Exam Date and Pattern

CDS 2 English is September 13, 2026, from 9:00 to 11:00 AM. Check the 100-mark pattern, OTA paper difference, negative marking and SSB route.

The UPSC CDS 2 2026 English paper is scheduled for Sunday, September 13, from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM IST. It is a two-hour, 100-mark objective paper for candidates targeting IMA, INA, AFA and OTA.

General Knowledge follows from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM. Elementary Mathematics runs from 4:00 PM to 6:00 PM for IMA, INA and AFA candidates, while OTA candidates finish after General Knowledge.

The written examination does not test speaking. Speaking becomes relevant during the Services Selection Board process. Start a free SpeakShark conversation for general oral confidence and use UPSC and service material for CDS selection.

Key takeaways

  • CDS 2 is on September 13, 2026.
  • English runs from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM IST.
  • The English paper is 100 marks in two hours.
  • Every written paper is objective type.
  • A wrong answer loses one third of its assigned marks.
  • The notice lists 451 tentative vacancies across five courses.

In this guide: timetable | English | OTA | syllabus | penalty | vacancies | admit card | SSB | research | FAQ

CDS 2 2026 paper-by-paper timetable

UPSC's published timetable places all papers on one Sunday.

Date IST time Subject Code Who takes it
September 13, 2026 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM English 11 IMA, INA, AFA and OTA
September 13, 2026 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM General Knowledge 12 IMA, INA, AFA and OTA
September 13, 2026 4:00 PM to 6:00 PM Elementary Mathematics 13 IMA, INA and AFA only

The English paper is first, so candidates do not need to preserve energy through another test before language performance. They do need to arrive early enough for identity checks, face authentication and entry closure.

UPSC closes entry 30 minutes before each session begins. Based on the published rule, entry closes at 8:30 AM for English, 12:00 noon for General Knowledge and 3:30 PM for Mathematics. The e-Admit Card can impose additional reporting instructions and remains controlling for the individual candidate.

The date can be changed at the Commission's discretion. Candidates should recheck the official CDS 2 page before travel.

CDS 2 English pattern

The written scheme gives English the same marks and duration for every academy route.

English-paper property Official 2026 value
Subject code 11
Duration 2 hours
Maximum marks 100
Question type Objective only
Language English
Expected standard Approximately graduate level

UPSC does not publish a fixed question count in the 2026 notice. Coaching pages often provide a number based on prior papers, but that number should not be promoted into the official scheme without a current paper or timetable stating it.

The Commission may set qualifying marks in any or all subjects. A candidate therefore needs enough English marks and enough total written marks for the selected course.

For comparison, SSC Combined Hindi Translators has a bilingual descriptive stage, RBI Grade B English has a 100-mark typed writing paper, and SBI PO English combines objective and descriptive communication. None shares the CDS objective scheme.

OTA and IMA, INA, AFA have different paper loads

The academy choice changes the written total.

Course route Written papers Written maximum SSB maximum
Indian Military Academy English, GK and Mathematics 300 300
Indian Naval Academy English, GK and Mathematics 300 300
Air Force Academy English, GK and Mathematics 300 300
Officers' Training Academy English and GK 200 200

The written and SSB maximums are equal for each course. English therefore represents:

  • One third of the IMA, INA and AFA written maximum.
  • One half of the OTA written maximum.

That weighting makes English especially consequential for an OTA-only candidate. It also means an OTA candidate should not follow a three-paper day plan copied from an IMA candidate.

Women candidates are considered for the notified OTA Short Service Commission Women Non-Technical course and indicate OTA as their choice under the notice. Service, age, education and marital-status rules should be checked course by course rather than inferred from the English-paper structure.

What the official English syllabus actually says

The entire published English syllabus is concise. UPSC says the paper is designed to test:

  1. Understanding of English.
  2. Workmanlike use of words.

The standard is approximately what may be expected of a graduate from an Indian university. UPSC does not attach a chapter list for tenses, idioms, sentence ordering or comprehension to the 2026 notice.

The defensible way to convert this broad syllabus into practice is:

  1. Download official previous CDS English papers.
  2. Classify the actual question forms that UPSC used.
  3. Separate vocabulary, sentence logic, grammar and reading errors.
  4. Track accuracy under the two-hour limit.
  5. Recheck current instructions when the 2026 e-Admit Card appears.

Previous papers are evidence of recurring form, not a guarantee that every past category returns unchanged.

General language resources such as English vocabulary and speaking skills, beginner speaking mistakes, and English speaking and writing skills can support fundamentals. They do not replace timed UPSC objective papers.

Candidates comparing digital practice options can also review English speaking apps for India jobs, while keeping CDS written practice tied to official papers.

Negative marking is one third

Every CDS written paper is objective, and UPSC applies the same penalty rule.

Response Score treatment
Correct answer Full assigned marks
Wrong answer Deduct one third, stated as 0.33, of assigned marks
More than one response Treated as wrong, even if one response is correct
Blank answer No penalty

The penalty is not a universal flat mark value because it depends on the marks assigned to the question. If questions in a paper share equal value, the deduction is one third of that per-question value.

A practical objective strategy is:

  1. Answer high-confidence items first.
  2. Eliminate options before considering a lower-confidence attempt.
  3. Avoid double-marking an OMR response.
  4. Leave an item blank when no option can be eliminated reliably.
  5. Reserve time to check OMR booklet series, subject code and roll number.

UPSC provides a representation window for appeared candidates from the third day after the examination through 6:00 PM on the seventh day. Representations cover questions and provisional answer keys through the online portal, not email or post.

CDS 2 2026 vacancies

The May notification lists 451 tentative vacancies.

Course Tentative vacancies
Indian Military Academy, 163rd DE course 100
Indian Naval Academy, Executive and Hydro 26
Air Force Academy, 222 F(P) course 32
OTA, 126th SSC Men Non-Technical 275
OTA, 126th SSC Women Non-Technical 18
Total 451

The IMA total includes 13 NCC Army Wing reserved vacancies. INA includes six NCC Naval Wing places and one Hydro place. AFA includes three NCC Air Wing places through NCC Special Entry.

Vacancies can change during selection according to service requirements. The 451 figure should be described as tentative rather than a guaranteed final intake.

The written result and merit lists for OTA Men and OTA Women are prepared separately according to their notified vacancies.

Application and fee record

The initial notification set the application deadline at June 9, 2026, 6:00 PM. The current UPSC examination-notification archive displays June 11, 6:00 PM. Because the window is closed, candidates should preserve the application confirmation and use the current archive as the historical status page.

Applicant Examination fee
Female candidates Exempt
SC and ST candidates Exempt
Other candidates INR 200

Payment was available through the methods listed by UPSC. Mere issuance of an e-Admit Card does not mean final eligibility has been cleared.

The notice introduced the Universal Registration Number, Common Application Form and examination-specific module structure. The application number is specific to CDS 2, while the URN remains common across UPSC examinations.

Admit Card, entry and OMR rules

UPSC says the e-Admit Card will be issued on the last working day of the week preceding the examination. It will be downloaded from the online portal and is not sent by post or email.

Candidates should verify:

  • Name and photograph.
  • Roll number and examination centre.
  • Papers applicable to the selected academy route.
  • Reporting and gate-closing times.
  • Photo ID details matching the application.
  • Any centre-specific instructions.

At the examination, candidates must use a black ball pen for writing and OMR marking. Incorrectly encoding the roll number or test-booklet series can make an answer sheet liable for rejection.

Face authentication is mandatory at the venue. Mobile phones, smart watches, storage devices, cameras and communication-capable equipment are prohibited. UPSC also says candidates should not bring bags or valuables because safe-keeping is not arranged.

For source discipline, see questions before booking an English test. The same principle applies here: the notification, timetable, e-Admit Card and representation portal perform different jobs.

What happens after the written exam

UPSC prepares a list of candidates who meet the written qualifying standard. The relevant service headquarters then details successful candidates for the Services Selection Board process.

SSB has two stages:

SSB stage Published components
Stage I Officer Intelligence Rating and Picture Perception and Description Test
Stage II Interview, Group Testing Officer tasks, psychology tests and conference

Only candidates who clear Stage I continue to Stage II. The second stage runs over four days according to the CDS notice.

The Interviewing Officer, Group Testing Officer and psychologist assess the candidate holistically. UPSC says there is no separate weight for each individual test, and conference marks also reflect the overall assessment.

Army-first-choice candidates for IMA or OTA who clear the written exam must register on the Army recruiting website to receive SSB call-up information. Candidates already registered should not register again.

For general speaking, practise English job interview role plays, English conversation topics for adults, and office small talk. Start free speaking practice without treating it as an SSB assessment.

How we researched this guide

On August 28, 2026, we checked the official UPSC notification archive, the live UPSC homepage timetable listing and the 35-page CDS 2 notice. We used the notice for scheme, vacancies, negative marking, syllabus, entry and SSB rules.

The newly published timetable supplied the three exact IST sessions. We kept OTA separate from IMA, INA and AFA because the official scheme gives OTA two papers instead of three.

We did not turn coaching-site question counts into official facts, copy protected questions, predict cut-offs or use SpeakShark customer data.

We are a speaking improvement tool. We are not an exam preparation provider, and we are not affiliated with UPSC, the Ministry of Defence, the Indian Armed Forces or any exam board. For test format, booking and official practice material, go to the exam body directly. Use SpeakShark to make your spoken English stronger, and use official material to learn the test.

FAQ

When is the CDS 2 2026 English exam?
The CDS 2 English paper is scheduled for Sunday, September 13, 2026, from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM Indian Standard Time. It is the first paper of the day. General Knowledge follows from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM, with Elementary Mathematics from 4:00 PM to 6:00 PM.
How many marks is the CDS 2 English paper?
The English paper is worth 100 marks and lasts two hours. It uses subject code 11 and consists only of objective-type questions. UPSC does not state a fixed question count in the 2026 notification, so candidates should not treat an unofficial count as part of the published scheme.
Do OTA candidates take the CDS English paper?
Yes. Officers' Training Academy candidates take English and General Knowledge, each worth 100 marks and lasting two hours. They do not take Elementary Mathematics. Candidates for the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy take all three written papers for a 300-mark written total.
What is the negative marking in CDS 2 2026?
UPSC deducts one third, stated as 0.33, of the marks assigned to a question for a wrong answer. Marking more than one response is treated as wrong even if one selected response is correct. A blank question has no penalty. The rule applies to all objective written papers.
What does the CDS English syllabus cover?
UPSC says the paper tests understanding of English and workmanlike use of words. The expected standard is approximately that of a graduate from an Indian university. The official syllabus does not publish a chapter-by-chapter grammar list, so previous UPSC papers are the safest evidence for recurring question forms.
What happens after the CDS 2 written exam?
Candidates who reach the written qualifying standard are called by the relevant service headquarters for the two-stage Services Selection Board process. Stage I uses Officer Intelligence Rating and Picture Perception and Description. Stage II includes interview, Group Testing Officer tasks, psychology tests and conference, followed by medical and merit requirements.

The CDS 2 English paper is scheduled for Sunday, September 13, 2026, from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM Indian Standard Time. It is the first paper of the day. General Knowledge follows from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM, with Elementary Mathematics from 4:00 PM to 6:00 PM.

The English paper is worth 100 marks and lasts two hours. It uses subject code 11 and consists only of objective-type questions. UPSC does not state a fixed question count in the 2026 notification, so candidates should not treat an unofficial count as part of the published scheme.

Yes. Officers' Training Academy candidates take English and General Knowledge, each worth 100 marks and lasting two hours. They do not take Elementary Mathematics. Candidates for the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy take all three written papers for a 300-mark written total.

UPSC deducts one third, stated as 0.33, of the marks assigned to a question for a wrong answer. Marking more than one response is treated as wrong even if one selected response is correct. A blank question has no penalty. The rule applies to all objective written papers.

UPSC says the paper tests understanding of English and workmanlike use of words. The expected standard is approximately that of a graduate from an Indian university. The official syllabus does not publish a chapter-by-chapter grammar list, so previous UPSC papers are the safest evidence for recurring question forms.

Candidates who reach the written qualifying standard are called by the relevant service headquarters for the two-stage Services Selection Board process. Stage I uses Officer Intelligence Rating and Picture Perception and Description. Stage II includes interview, Group Testing Officer tasks, psychology tests and conference, followed by medical and merit requirements.

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Sources

  1. UPSC CDS 2 2026 notification, checked for scheme, English, penalties, vacancies and SSB.
  2. UPSC examination notification archive, checked for the current date and application record.
  3. UPSC homepage, checked for the live CDS 2 timetable listing.
  4. UPSC CDS 2 timetable page, checked for the three exact sessions.
  5. UPSC previous question papers, checked for official CDS English papers.
  6. UPSC online application portal, checked for the current portal route.
  7. Indian Army recruiting portal, checked for the Army SSB registration route named by UPSC.
  8. SpeakShark pricing, checked for current free and paid options.

UPSC can change dates, centres, qualifying marks, vacancies and SSB instructions. Confirm the CDS 2 page and e-Admit Card before acting.

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